If this man is correct- there is an Islamic basis for giving land to the peasants.
Should the Muslim ruler redistribute land to the peasants?
My view is that if what the author has said is true then it is proven that the ruler can expropriate land with compensation.
So for example Malema in South Africa is talking about expropriating land without compensation. As I understand it that is not correct. But if some tiny percent of the population has almost all the land- I think the Muslim ruler can take some of their land, compensate them for it, then distribute it to the poor.
Don't take my word for it- you read the paper and you decide but I think it is a fascinating issue.
Does Islam allow for such practice? Do you agree or disagree with it?
Should the Muslim ruler redistribute land to the peasants?
My view is that if what the author has said is true then it is proven that the ruler can expropriate land with compensation.
So for example Malema in South Africa is talking about expropriating land without compensation. As I understand it that is not correct. But if some tiny percent of the population has almost all the land- I think the Muslim ruler can take some of their land, compensate them for it, then distribute it to the poor.
Don't take my word for it- you read the paper and you decide but I think it is a fascinating issue.
Does Islam allow for such practice? Do you agree or disagree with it?
