Ancient DNA from the Green Sahara reveals ancestral North African lineage

Semites are from Northern Arabia. We literally have the akkadians (a semetic speaking peoples) in mesoptomaia 1 thosuand years beofe the date you mentioned.
Brother I believe it’s widely accepted by now that Semites started their migration from the north and then expanded southwards after but the bulk of Arabs today in Arabia descend from lineages that have origin in the south. The Natufian-Zargosian-Anatolian component is quite stable and almost uniformly similar across all the Arabs which means they had to be either in the centre or south of the Arabian peninsula before colonising the rest of Arabia otherwise if we go by your theory then we should see a gradual gradient of higher Iran/CHG up north and higher Natufian ancestry further south but this is not the case. You can’t distinguish a Yemeni from a Saudi Bedouin from up north today when looking at their ancestral composition
There is also the fact that most semetic lanaguges except ethiosemetic and modern south arabian lanaguges are from the north. I've even posted on here how linguists showed that south semetic is not a real grouping and that old south arabian is actually a central semetic language ( closer to Arabic and Hebrew) than modern south arabian and ethiosemetic. Which are lanaguges which have a cushitic substratum.
It was the Sabeans (OSA) that colonised parts of Eritrea bringing the old south Arabian cultural package like the script, religion (Moon pagan god Al Maqa), Mukarab etc. Modern south lived on the other side near Oman so it doesn’t make sense for them to have introduced the Ethio-Semitic languages into Eritrea
The final nail in the coffin is that writing in the semetic script only arrives in southern arabia after the bronze age collapses in 1200 b.c ( the oldest semetic script is found in the Sinai penisula and is called the proto sinatic script) which would make sense if this collapse caused the semetic peoples in the north to flee their urban centers and migrate south.

90% of All the scripts used in the world today descends from the proto sinaitic script including the one you are using right now. By your logic we all have roots in the Sinai during the bronze era
Cattle, sheep, goats, donkeys. And used to hunt too. The sheep and goats came at the same time as the donkey was domesticated. So about 7000 years ago, probably a few centuries before, from the Levant or Arabia. That is like 2000 years before the horse. And to be honest, I think the domestication of the first beast of burden probably started the other ones.
lol how did I forget the donkey, sheep and goat :francis:
Remember, Arabia had wild camels. The camel in the Quran was not domesticated by humans since it came to drink by itself. It was not a beast of burden since people were instructed to leave her alone. Either way, that camel was special and not normal.

But similar to how hunter-gatherers depicted aurochs that they would much later domesticate, I believe the early Arabs depicted wild camels, since they hunted for them. Here is a hunt between 4500-3500 years ago:
View attachment 358620

And that relationship started the domestication process. We have evidence of different peoples sitting on camels, in front of the hump, behind the hump. Many unique sitting styles before the saddle. But those are 5000 years ago and later.

My theory is, started off as a meat source with significant cultural significance. Later, those pastoral-hunters saw the benefit of the animals they had subdued in wild form and wanted the long-term stability it would give them, with Allah's will.


b1eb615e097e8af26d1dd5ab7e301ff6a1e9afac.gifv
This makes sense. I like how you pinpointed out how the thamud camel came to drink by herself and was therefore most likely not domesticated.
 
Last edited:
Brother I believe it’s widely accepted by now that Semites started their migration from the north and then expanded southwards after but the bulk of Arabs today in Arabia descend from lineages that have origin in the south. The Natufian-Zargosian-Anatolian component is quite stable and almost uniformly similar across all the Arabs which means they had to be either in the centre or south of the Arabian peninsula before colonising the rest of Arabia otherwise if we go by your theory then we should see a gradual gradient of higher Iran/CHG up north and higher Natufian ancestry further south but this is not the case. You can’t distinguish a Yemeni from a Saudi Bedouin from up north today when looking at their ancestral composition

It was the Sabeans (OSA) that colonised parts of Eritrea bringing the old south Arabian cultural package like the script, religion (Moon pagan god Al Maqa), Mukarab etc. Modern south lived on the other side near Oman so it doesn’t make sense for them to have introduced the Ethio-Semitic languages into Eritrea


90% of All the scripts used in the world today descends from the proto sinaitic script including the one you are using right now. By your logic we all have roots in the Sinai during the bronze era

lol how did I forget the donkey, sheep and goat :francis:

This makes sense. I like how you pinpointed out how the thamud camel came to drink by herself and was therefore most likely not domesticated.
By lineages are you talking about family geaonolgies ? Becuase that's easily just attributed to the fact that they everybody family wants to place their origin in yemen/southern arabia since they think that's the birthplace of the arabs.

Also i think your confused about my argument on the lingustic aspects. The current consensus in semetic lingustics is that old south arabian is actually related to Arabic Hebrew and aramic.
Screenshot_20241226_145125_Reddit.jpg
Screenshot_20241226_145133_Reddit.jpg
 
90% of All the scripts used in the world today descends from the proto sinaitic script including the one you are using right now. By your logic we all have roots in the Sinai during the bronze age
That's not my point. We have several semetic lanaguges written in cunieform in mesomptoia and the Levant. But the first time writing appears in southern arabia is with the sinaitic script which was brought there by semetic speakers.

if semetic speakers were writing in cuneiform akkadian from 2400 b.c onwards in both Mesopotamia and the Levant . Yet we find no cuneiform in southern arabia. I can only assume semetic speakers hadn't reached it by then. Espciaally in light of how quick the proto sinatic script reached southern arabia. ( less than 1 thosuand years after it's invention)
 
By lineages are you talking about family geaonolgies ? Becuase that's easily just attributed to the fact that they everybody family wants to place their origin in yemen/southern arabia since they think that's the birthplace of the arabs.
I was on about both the ratio between their ancestral composition (Natufian, Iran Neolithic, Anatolian) as well as their paternal Y chromosome. It’s hard to differentiate between a Yemeni and a northern Saudi Bedouin when looking at their ancestral composition and that’s because they both migrated very early on towards the south assimilating and mixing with the pre existing groups in Arabia reaching a homeostasis in their genetic makeup and then some of the tribes migrated back up. If we go by your theory where the bulk of the Arabs were in the Levant /NW Arabia and only a few migrated towards the southern tip of the peninsula during the Bronze Age collapse then the northern Saudi’s would have a different genetic profile compared to the southern ones but that’s not the case. Don’t forget the south has the monopoly of harbouring more diverse J1-P58 and P56 specific lineages compared to the north

That's not my point. We have several semetic lanaguges written in cunieform in mesomptoia and the Levant. But the first time writing appears in southern arabia is with the sinaitic script which was brought there by semetic speakers.

if semetic speakers were writing in cuneiform akkadian from 2400 b.c onwards in both Mesopotamia and the Levant . Yet we find no cuneiform in southern arabia. I can only assume semetic speakers hadn't reached it by then. Espciaally in light of how quick the proto sinatic script reached southern arabia. ( less than 1 thosuand years after it's invention)
The Arabs used to travel from Yemen to the levant with their caravans loaded with exotic goods procured from India, Horn of Africa etc and then sell it on the Mediterranean coast. It’s via trade how they got hold of the script. How do you think Saba got rich as early as the 1000 BCE?

Also i think your confused about my argument on the lingustic aspects. The current consensus in semetic lingustics is that old south arabian is actually related to Arabic Hebrew and aramic.
View attachment 358640View attachment 358641
Yes we know OSA is linked with Arabic in a central Semitic phylum. This is widely known.
 

Trending

Top