Question about Muhammad (saw) marriage to aisha (and Islam rules on child marriage)

I saw that thread previously where everyone was arguing about this topic. I made a comment but I didn’t get any response ? I am curious what y’all think about this and if there is any way to solve this dilemma without supporting p*dophilia or contradicting islam?

I’ll just give y’all my premises and conclude with the final question, I want you guys to try and counter my thought process my disputing the following premises…….

The premises:

1. Islamic morals are objective, for all mankind and all time

2. Islamically, you are considered a child before puberty

3. Muhammad (saw) married aisha when she was 6, so under the Islamic definition, she was still a child.

This is also why he waited 3 years until she was 9 to consummate the marriage

4. There is no scripture that prohibits marriage to children who have not hit puberty (correct me if I am wrong by providing the verse/hadith)​

The question: So islamically speaking is pedophilia/marrying literal children something that’s just allowed …???
 
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Everyone keeps saying “times were different back then” but the implication of that line of thinking is that Islamic morals aren’t objective after all, isnt that problematic

And by the way it still doesn’t add much to the conversation since islamically, aisha was still considered a child since she hadn’t hit puberty.

Whoever read this thanks for taking the time and I look forward to hearing y’all responses
 
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Since nobody replying and we’re spamming anime niggas now 😘

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If anyone know a man like this send him my way cuz :faysalwtf::stressed:

I didn’t know a drawing could be so damn fine…


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:whew::whoo: :mjkkk: :wow:
 
my mom always told me she was 16-19 i remember us watching a doc about it i'll link when i find

i only found out ppl thought she was 9 ,when i was like 14 i was shook, from my arabic macalim then he went on a rant about ppl these days are 13/14 but stll mentally a child:damn:
 

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Sister asked a very good question
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I saw that thread previously where everyone was arguing about this topic. I made a comment but I didn’t get any response ? I am curious what y’all think about this and if there is any way to solve this dilemma without supporting p*dophilia or contradicting islam?

I’ll just give y’all my premises and conclude with the final question, I want you guys to try and counter my thought process my disputing the following premises…….

The premises:

1. Islamic morals are objective, for all mankind and all time

2. Islamically, you are considered a child before puberty

3. Muhammad (saw) married aisha when she was 6, so under the Islamic definition, she was still a child.

This is also why he waited 3 years until she was 9 to consummate the marriage

4. There is no scripture that prohibits marriage to children who have not hit puberty (correct me if I am wrong by providing the verse/hadith)​

The question: So islamically speaking is pedophilia/marrying literal children something that’s just allowed …???
In Islam you need to consent to be married.
Aisha reported: I said, “O Messenger of Allah, should women be asked for their consent before marriage?” The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said, “Yes.” I said, “Indeed, sometimes a virgin is too shy to speak when asked.” The Prophet said, “Her silence is her consent.”

Source: Ṣaḥīḥ al-Bukhārī 6946, Ṣaḥīḥ Muslim 1420
The Quran forbids forcing women to marry by compulsion:
“O You who have chosen to be graced with belief! It is not lawful for you to force women into marrying or holding on to them in marriage against their will.” (Quran, 4:19)

Prior to marriage with the prophet she was going to get married with someone else
Yes, she was engaged to Jubayr ibn Mut'im before she married the prophet (s.a.w).

The idea to match Aisha with Muhammad was suggested by Khawlah bint Hakim. After this, the previous agreement regarding the marriage of Aisha with Jubayr ibn Mut'im was put aside by common consent.

The Quran equates marriageable age to a mature and sound judgment:
“And test the orphans [in your charge] until they reach a marriageable age; then, if you find them to be mature of mind/sound in judgment, hand over to them their possessions…” (Quran, 4:6)
Please pay close attention here. Marriageable age is equated to sound judgment; an age in which a person can responsibly handle their possessions.

So long story short, morals are objective but the requirements to be fit for marriage is a social construct which changes over time as people now live in a time of luxury unlike then when there was war, famine, infant mortality, oppression, diseases and much more.

Children cannot consent it was a decision done by her parents.

There was a person who was planned to get married to her prior to the marriage to the prophet so her first planned marriage she could’ve been younger than 6 so I don’t think it would be her planning these marriages. It’s her parents.

When she began puberty they consummated the marriage meaning finalised meaning what was prior was nothing more than a plan to get married than an actual marriage.

The prophet never lived with her until the marriage was consummated and she was at an age fit for their time.

If she had said no Islamically you cannot get married to someone who doesn’t consent to it.

Like I explained earlier the quality of life would effect what society thinks is sound mind and physically ready for marriage.

So there is a possibility you can get married far before you actually reach sound mind but I think this is an Arab custom of the time and isn’t some prescribed moral obligation that you have to do it.

Because there something you have to understand about the sunnah and that is there are what the prophet prescribed and there somethings the prophet did because the prophet was a man of that time period and there are somethings that he only could do.

For example we all don’t act and dress like we are in the 7th century and reject technological progress(like the Amish) because the prophet lived during that time period so we have to emulate him exactly 1 for 1.
Source for more on this topic

Even if someone gets a planned marriage they could just say no to it and it’s called off. That’s if it’s an actual religious prescription for all of humanity and not just a custom they had back in the day.
 
According to Sheikh Chat ibnu GPT should could've been 18-19 since Asma who is Aisha's sister is 10 years older than Aisha and 27 when the Hijra happened. Aisha marries the prophet in the 2nd year of the Hijra making her 18-19.

Personally, I think Aisha was much older than 9 since she is well-quoted and a significant person in the Hadith literature, it makes more sense that she was older.
 

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I saw that thread previously where everyone was arguing about this topic. I made a comment but I didn’t get any response ? I am curious what y’all think about this and if there is any way to solve this dilemma without supporting p*dophilia or contradicting islam?

I’ll just give y’all my premises and conclude with the final question, I want you guys to try and counter my thought process my disputing the following premises…….

The premises:

1. Islamic morals are objective, for all mankind and all time

2. Islamically, you are considered a child before puberty

3. Muhammad (saw) married aisha when she was 6, so under the Islamic definition, she was still a child.

This is also why he waited 3 years until she was 9 to consummate the marriage

4. There is no scripture that prohibits marriage to children who have not hit puberty (correct me if I am wrong by providing the verse/hadith)​

The question: So islamically speaking is pedophilia/marrying literal children something that’s just allowed …???
Yes all four madhabs of sunni Islam use her marriage as proof of permissibility of marriage to prepubescent minors. Shafi'i madhab that Somalis follow takes this a step further from the rest. They believe that fathers have absolute authority on who their prepubescent daughter gets married to.


Madhab of Shafi'i legalizes the saghir / saghirah marriage if it is carried out by a father or grandfather, and is not permitted if the khiyar is an adult. Al-Shafi'i mentioned ‘Aisha was married by her father to the Apostle Saw. This shows that Abu Bakr (as a parent) has more right than ‘Aisha (as a child) in marriage matters. Because, children aged 7 and 9 years certainly do not have adequate maturity (to make decisions). The marriage which is done rightfully must fulfill the kafa'ah element between the bride and groom.
 
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Yes all four madhabs of sunni Islam use her marriage as proof of permissibility of marriage to prepubescent minors. Shafi'i madhab that Somalis follow takes this a step further from the rest. They believe that fathers have absolute authority on who their prepubescent daughter gets married to.
How do you know that it’s not a religious decree but an Arabian custom of the time.

Just because they did it doesn’t mean we all have to share the exact same customs.

Unless it’s a religious decree or recommendation.
 

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