I saw that thread previously where everyone was arguing about this topic. I made a comment but I didn’t get any response ? I am curious what y’all think about this and if there is any way to solve this dilemma without supporting p*dophilia or contradicting islam?
I’ll just give y’all my premises and conclude with the final question, I want you guys to try and counter my thought process my disputing the following premises…….
The premises:
The question: So islamically speaking is pedophilia/marrying literal children something that’s just allowed …???
I’ll just give y’all my premises and conclude with the final question, I want you guys to try and counter my thought process my disputing the following premises…….
The premises:
1. Islamic morals are objective, for all mankind and all time
2. Islamically, you are considered a child before puberty
3. Muhammad (saw) married aisha when she was 6, so under the Islamic definition, she was still a child.
This is also why he waited 3 years until she was 9 to consummate the marriage
4. There is no scripture that prohibits marriage to children who have not hit puberty (correct me if I am wrong by providing the verse/hadith)
2. Islamically, you are considered a child before puberty
3. Muhammad (saw) married aisha when she was 6, so under the Islamic definition, she was still a child.
This is also why he waited 3 years until she was 9 to consummate the marriage
4. There is no scripture that prohibits marriage to children who have not hit puberty (correct me if I am wrong by providing the verse/hadith)
The question: So islamically speaking is pedophilia/marrying literal children something that’s just allowed …???
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