I cant find the info Im looking for with Google, and I know @Beeldaaje is a smart feller that know these things. And anyone else that has info can answer.
1. When was Somali classified as a Cushitic language, in the Afro-Asiatic family? And who made this classification?
2. Those that classified it as such, what were their credentials? Did they know Somali, Arabic, Oromo, Afar, Amharic, etc?
3. What are their mechanisms for classifying Somali as Cushitic, rather than Semitic? I know Somali and Arabic have their differences and similarities, but how does that compare to Somali and Oromo's differences and simmilarities? Somali and Afar? What is the criteria for Somali, Afar, and Oromo being Cushitic, while Amharic and Arabic are Semitic?
Im not bootyclapping for Arabs, Im just curious about this subject. I just have a minimal foundation in Arabic, and I dont know Oromo and Afar. Maybe if knew I all three languages, it would be obvious why the classifications are the way they are. At the same time, I have my suspicions that the people who classified the languages as such were 19th century linguists who were a little too lazy to do all the research required. As in become fluent in all the languages of the area.
So what you say?
I didnt post in Anthropology because that board is dead.
1. When was Somali classified as a Cushitic language, in the Afro-Asiatic family? And who made this classification?
2. Those that classified it as such, what were their credentials? Did they know Somali, Arabic, Oromo, Afar, Amharic, etc?
3. What are their mechanisms for classifying Somali as Cushitic, rather than Semitic? I know Somali and Arabic have their differences and similarities, but how does that compare to Somali and Oromo's differences and simmilarities? Somali and Afar? What is the criteria for Somali, Afar, and Oromo being Cushitic, while Amharic and Arabic are Semitic?
Im not bootyclapping for Arabs, Im just curious about this subject. I just have a minimal foundation in Arabic, and I dont know Oromo and Afar. Maybe if knew I all three languages, it would be obvious why the classifications are the way they are. At the same time, I have my suspicions that the people who classified the languages as such were 19th century linguists who were a little too lazy to do all the research required. As in become fluent in all the languages of the area.
So what you say?

I didnt post in Anthropology because that board is dead.
