Honestly I found it so weird when I began studying early modern and medieval Somali history and noticed the
constant accounts of letters being sent, treaties being written and
wadaado roaming the country to educate people in how to write the Arabic script. I rationalized what these cadaan writers were saying as to mean the Somali language itself was not employed too much to write when compared to Arabic but the whole "oral society" thing is what confuses me.
Any imbecile reading through early modern and medieval Somali accounts can tell it's not actually an "oral society". Not any more than medieval Arabia or England was "oral". Sure, maybe the average ruralite spread things mainly through word of mouth but, clearly, the merchants, traders, clergy and politicians were literate and communicating via the written word. How is that then, wholly speaking, an "oral society"? Very odd.
I mean, even if it they principally communicated this way in Arabic, how is it any different from how Latin was the language of writing, education and government in much of medieval Europe while their own native tongues remained mainly colloquial?